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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 01:19

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What can you do if you are a full-grown adult, but never experienced being a child?

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Is heroin really as good as people say it is?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?